CURRENT AFFAIRS 21 August, 2025

CURRENT AFFAIRS 21 August, 2025

1. INDIA’S MOON LANDING MISSION (2040) –

• Union Minister Jitendra Singh announced in the Lok Sabha that an Indian astronaut will land on the Moon by 2040, as part of India’s long-term roadmap.

About India’s Moon Landing Mission (2040)

• Aim: To demonstrate human exploration capability beyond Earth orbit.
• Self Reliance in Space: It will rely on indigenous launch vehicles, life-support systems, and lunar surface technologies.
• Significance: The project aligns with the goal of Viksit Bharat 2047, integrating scientific, economic, and security dimensions.

India’s Space Exploration Roadmap

• Vyommitra Mission (2026): To test critical human spaceflight systems through an uncrewed mission carrying humanoid robot Vyommitra.
• Gaganyaan Mission (2027): To achieve India’s first human spaceflight in low Earth orbit, demonstrating astronaut launch and recovery capability.
• Bharat Antariksh Station (2035): To establish India’s own space station, enabling long-duration scientific experiments and technology demonstration in space.
• Crewed Moon Landing (2040): To place an Indian astronaut on the lunar surface, showcasing India’s independent human exploration capability.

2. PRODUCTION LINKED INCENTIVE (PLI) SCHEME –

• The Government informed Parliament that PLI disbursements crossed ₹21,000 crore, with applications clearance across 14 sectors since its launch.

Key Highlights of PLI Scheme Implementation

• Investment Mobilisation: The scheme has attracted investments worth ₹1.90 lakh crore, boosting manufacturing capacity across priority sectors.
• Application Clearances: A total of 806 applications have been approved under various PLI schemes.
• Higher approvals were seen in strong sectors like food products (182), specialty steel (109), and automobiles & auto components (95).
• Electronics and Mobile Manufacturing Success: Mobile phone production value rose 146% from ₹2.13 lakh crore (2020-21) to ₹5.25 lakh crore (2024-25).
• Exports of mobile phones surged 775%, from ₹22,870 crore in 2020-21 to ₹2,00,000 crore in 2024-25.

3. JAN VISHWAS BILL 2025 –

• The Government of India introduced the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025 in the Lok Sabha. This Bill proposes amendments to 355 provisions across 16 Central Acts.
• Its primary objective is to ease the applicability of laws by decriminalising 288 minor offences and amending 67 provisions to promote ease of living. The Bill builds on the Jan Vishwas Act, 2023, which decriminalised 183 provisions in 42 Central Acts. The Bill has been referred to a Select Committee for detailed examination.

Background

• The Jan Vishwas Bill, 2025 is part of the Government’s ongoing effort to simplify laws and reduce regulatory burdens. The 2023 Act was the first consolidated legislation aimed at decriminalising minor offences to encourage trust-based governance. The 2025 Bill extends this effort by targeting more provisions and introducing proportionate penalties. The Government emphasises ‘Minimum Government Maximum Governance’ to improve ease of doing business and ease of living.

4. CHIEF ELECTION COMMISSIONER REMOVAL PROCESS EXPLAINED –

• The Election Commission of India (ECI) remains under scrutiny amid allegations of electoral fraud. Opposition parties are considering a motion to remove the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC). This has sparked renewed interest in the constitutional and legal framework governing the appointment and removal of the CEC. The process is designed to ensure the independence and integrity of the ECI in conducting free and fair elections.

Appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner

• The CEC and other Election Commissioners (ECs) are appointed by the President of India. This is based on recommendations from a three-member selection committee. The committee includes the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister.
• Candidates must have held secretary-level government posts and possess integrity and election management experience. The tenure is six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. The CEC receives salary and benefits equal to a Supreme Court judge.

5. INDIA SUCCESSFULLY TEST-FIRES AGNI-5 INTERMEDIATE-RANGE BALLISTIC MISSILE –

• On August 20, 2025, India successfully conducted a test-firing of the Agni-5 Intermediate Range Ballistic Missile (IRBM) from the Integrated Test Range (ITR) in Chandipur, Odisha. The test was carried out under the Strategic Forces Command, validating all operational and technical parameters, and reaffirming India’s growing strategic deterrence capability.

What is Agni-5?

• Type: Intermediate Range Ballistic Missile (IRBM)
• Range: Over 5,000 km, capable of reaching most parts of Asia and parts of Europe
• Payload: Capable of carrying both conventional and nuclear warheads
• Stages: Three-stage, solid-fuelled missile
• Launch Platform: Canisterised – allows quick launch from road-mobile platforms
• Agni-5 is the most advanced missile in India’s Agni series, which forms the backbone of the nuclear deterrence strategy under India’s No First Use (NFU) policy.

MCQ QUIZ

Q1.   Recently, China delivered the third Hangor-class submarine to which country as part of a major defence export deal ?

1. a) Bangladesh
2. b) Iran
3. c) Myanmar
4. d) Pakistan

Q2.   Who has been announced as the NDA’s candidate for the Vice-Presidential election scheduled on 9th September 2025 ?

1. a) Jagdeep Dhankhar
2. b) Ramesh Bais
3. c) C.P. Radhakrishnan
4. d) Bandaru Dattatreya

Q3.   According to Article 157 of the Indian Constitution, what is the minimum age required to be appointed as a Governor of a State ?

1. a) 30 years
2. b) 32 years
3. c) 35 years
4. d) 40 years

Q4.   Which of the following statements about the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India is/are correct ?

1. The CEC can be removed by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister.
2. The grounds for removal are proven misbehaviour or incapacity, similar to a Supreme Court judge.
3. A judicial inquiry is mandatory before the CEC can be removed.
4. The removal requires a simple majority vote in both Houses of Parliament.
5. a) 1 and 2 only
6. b) 2 and 3 only
7. c) Only 3 and 4
8. d) Only 2, 3 and 4

Explanation-

• Statement 1 – Incorrect: The President cannot remove the CEC at will or merely on the PM’s advice. It requires a detailed parliamentary and judicial procedure, similar to a Supreme Court judge, as per Article 324(5).
• Statement 2 – Correct: The CEC can be removed only on the grounds of proven misbehaviour or incapacity.
• Statement 3 – Correct: A judicial inquiry committee must first investigate and confirm the charges before the motion can proceed.
• Statement 4 – Incorrect: The removal requires a two-thirds majority in both Houses, not a simple majority.

Q5.   Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana (PM-VBRY):

1. The scheme targets the creation of 3.5 crore jobs over a period of five years.
2. It provides financial incentives to both first-time employees and employers.
3. It covers only those employees earning below ₹50,000 per month.

          Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1. a) 1 and 2 only
2. b) 2 only
3. c) 2 and 3 only
4. d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation-

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme targets creation of 3.5 crore jobs in two years, not five.
• Statement 2 is correct: Incentives are offered both to first-time employees (Part A) and to employers hiring them (Part B).
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The scheme covers employees earning up to ₹1 lakh per month, not ₹50,000.

Answer Key