Haryana HCS 2021 Previous Year Paper

HCS [HARYANA CIVIL SERVICES] PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 2021

Q1. Among the following languages, which has/have been declared as ‘Classical Language / Languages’ by the Indian Government?

(i) Malayalam

(ii) Kannada

(iii) Telugu

(iv) Tamil

(A) (ii) (i) and (iv) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

(D) All of the above

ANSWER: (D)

Q2. Which among the following is known as ‘Virodhi Kavi’ or the ‘Rebel Poet’ ?

(A) Suryakant Tripathi Nirala

(B) Kazi Nazrul Islam

(C) Sumitranandan Pant

(D) Mohan Rakesh

ANSWER: (B)

Q3. In which of the following place/places are the famous Ashokan pillars found ?

(i) Sanchi

(ii) Sarnath

(iii) Lauriya Nandangarh

(iv) Amravati

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(D) All of the above

ANSWER: (C)

Q4. Who were the chief painters of the Hamza-nama under Akbar’s order?

(A) Bihzad and Mulla Dust Muhammad

(B) Daswanth and Basawan

(C) Sayyed Ali and Abdas Samad

(D) Manohar and Bishun Das

ANSWER: (C)

Q5. Which language was used as the official language in Satavahana Age?

(A) Sanskrit

(B) Prakrit

(C) Telugu

(D) Tamil

ANSWER: (B)

Q6. Which among following is NOT a proto-Harappan culture?

(A) Amri culture

(B) Sothi culture

(C) Kot-Diji culture

(D) Zhob culture

ANSWER: (D)

Q7. Who led the English Company’s Embassy to Emperor Farrukshiyar court ?

(A) Thomas Roe

(B) Gerald Aungier

(C) Robert Clive

(D) John Surman

ANSWER: (D)

Q8. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?

(A) Ramosi Uprising: Chittura Singh, 1822

(B) Santal Rebellion: Birsa Munda, 1899

(C) Rangpur Uprising: Dirjinarain, 1783

(D) Kol Uprising: Buddhu Bhagat, 1831

ANSWER: (B)

Q9. Which of the following statements about the ‘Ahrar Movement’ are true?

(i) One of its founders was Maulana Muhammad Ali.

(ii) Its members advocated active participation in the Indian National Movement.

(iii) It was founded in the early decades of the twentieth century.

(iv) It supported the loyalist politics of the Aligarh Movement.

Choose the correct answer:

(A) (ii), (iii), (iv)

(B) (i), (ii), (iii)

(C) (i), (iii), (iv)

(D) (i), (iv), (iii)

ANSWER: (B)

Q10. Arrange the chronological order of the Sufi saints:

(i) Nasiruddin Chirag-i-Delhi

(ii) Shaikh Muinuddin Sijzi

(iii) Baba Farid

(iv) Nizamuddin Aulia

Choose the correct chronology:

(A) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)

(B) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)

(C) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

ANSWER: (B)

Q11. Who assassinated Stevens, the District Magistrate of Tippera (Tripura) in 1931?

(A) Kalpana Datta and Suhasini Ganguly

(B) Pritilata Waddedar and Kalpana Datta

(C) Santi and Suniti Chaudhury

(D) Bina Das and Basanti Devi

ANSWER: (C)

Q12. Which dynasty ruled in the region of modern Haryana at the time of Ghaznavid invasion ?

(A) Tomara Rajputs

(B) Parmara Rajputs

(C) Chauhan Rajputs

(D) Kacchwaha Rajputs

ANSWER: (A)

Q13. Which statements are correct about Bhakti saint Namdeva ?

(I) Worshipped Vitthal Pandharpur.

(II) He was from Gujarat.

(III) He was a son of a tailor.

(IV) He wrote many Abhangas.

Choose the correct answer:

(A) (I), (II), (III), (IV)

(B) (II), (III), (IV)

(C) (I), (III), (IV)

(D) (I), (II), (II)

ANSWER: (C)

Q14. Given below are the locations of four archaeological sites in India:

(P) Attirampakkam, (Q) Bhimbetka, (R) Piklihal, (S) Burzahom

Which among the following presents the correct order of their locations from North to South?

(A) SQPR

(B) QRPS

(C) QSPR

(D) SQRP

ANSWER: (D)

Q15. Which among the following is a term that emerged during the 18th century in connection with the Agrarian system which basically meant a contract by which the revenue of an area was farmed out to the highest bidder ?

(A) Patta

(B) Qaul

(C) Tashkhis

(D) Ijara

ANSWER: (D)

Q16. With reference to the Mughal administration, which among the following options is connected to the features of “Mansabdari” System?

(A) Zat, Sawar

(B) Barkat, Fana

(C) Namus, Din

(D) Peshkash, Nazr

ANSWER: (A)

Q17. In the context of Land Revenue Settlement of Colonial India. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(A) In 1790, Lord Wellesley introduced the Permanent Settlement in Bengal Province.

(B) Under this, the Zamindars were recognised as the owners of the entire land in their Zamindaris.

(C) It made right of land ownership hereditary.

(D) Zamindars were given the right to sell the land.

ANSWER: (A)

Q18. With reference to Medieval Indian History, what does ‘Pietra Dura’ refer to ?

(A) It was a type of textile design prevalent in Deccan.

(B) Coloured, hard stones placed in depressions carved into marble or sandstone creating beautiful, ornate patterns.

(C) A variety of musical instrument played during Mughal wedding rituals.

(D) A kind of coloured photograph brought from Iran to the Mughal court.

ANSWER: (B)

Q19. Arrange the following cases related to basic structure of Constitution in chronological order.

(I) Minerva Mills Case

(II) Golak Nath Case

(III) Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain

(IV) Kesavanand Bharati Case

(A) II→III→I→IV

(B) II→IV→III→ I

(C) I→III→II→IV

(D) II→III→I→IV

ANSWER: (B)

Q20. Assertion (A): Financial bills can be introduced only in the Lower House (Lok Sabha).

Reason (R): Lower House (Lok Sabha) is directly elected by the people.

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

(C) A is true but R is false

(D) A is false but R is true

ANSWER: (B)

Q21. The notion of upholding and protecting the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India is contained in:

(A) Preamble

(B) Directive Principles of State Policy

(C) Fundamental Duties

(D) Fundamental rights

ANSWER: (A)

Q22. The terms Liberty, Equality and Fraternity used in the Preamble of the Constitution of India are inspired from which revolution?

(A) Russian Revolution

(B) Chinese Revolution

(C) French Revolution

(D) American war of independence

ANSWER: (C)

Q23. What is the name of our country as given by the Constitution of India?

(A) Hindustan that is Bharatavarsha

(B) India that is Hindustan

(C) India that is Bharat

(D) Bharat Desh that is India

ANSWER: (C)

Q24. In which part of the Constitution of India is mentioned the promotion of international peace and security?

(A) Preamble to the Constitution

(B) Directive Principles of State Policy

(C) Fundamental Duties.

(D) Ninth Schedule

ANSWER: (B)

Q25. Under which Article, can any citizen of India move directly to the Supreme Court of India for violation of any of his/her fundamental rights ?

(A) Article 32

(B) Article 35

(C) Article 14

(D) Ninth Schedule

ANSWER: (A)

Q26. Match List I with List II and select the sequence of correct answer-

Sequence –

(A) (a)-(1), (b)-(2), (c)-(3), (d)-(4), (e)-(5)

(B) (a)-(5), (b)-(4), (c)-(2), (d)-(3), (e)-(1)

(C) (a)-(4), (b)-(2), (c)-(5), (d)-(1), (e)-(3)

(D) (a)-(4), (b)-(5), (c)-(1), (d)-(2), (e)-(3)

ANSWER: (C)

Q27. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the conferment of the full statehood of the Indian Union?

(A) Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh – Nagaland – Haryana

(B) Nagaland – Haryana – Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh

(C) Sikkim – Haryana – Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh

(D) Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh – Sikkim – Haryana

ANSWER: (B)

Q28. Consider the following statements

(1) Right to Vote is a legal right and not a fundamental right

(2) Right to Property is not a Fundamental right.

(3) Article 300-A was inserted in the Constitution of India by the 44th constitutional amendment.

(4) Article 301 pertains to the Right to Property

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) (2), (3) and (4) only

(B) (1), (2) and (3) only

(C) (1), (2) and (4) only

(D) (1), (3) and (4) only

ANSWER: (B)

Q29. Which of the following statement is not correct?

(A) The objective resolution of the Indian constitution was laid by Jawaharlal Nehru.

(B) The objective resolution of the Indian constitution was laid by Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar.

(C) H.C. Mukherjee was elected as the vice-president of the Constituent Assembly.

(D) Dr. Sachidanand was elected as the interim President of the Constituent Assembly.

ANSWER: (B)

Q30. Which of the following is mentioned in Article 21 of the Indian Constitution?

(A) Rule of law

(B) Due process of Law

(C) Procedure established by Law

(D) Equality before Law

ANSWER: (C)

Q31. In which squadron of the Indian Air Force has the first batch of Rafale Fighter Jets been inducted?

(A) Squadron 17 Golden Arrows

(B) Squadron 52 Dragons

(C) Squadron 6 – Cobras

(D) Squadron 4 – Tigers

ANSWER: (A)

Q32. Match the following:

Options:

(A) (1) (A), (II) (D), (III) (B), (IV) (C)

(B) (1) (D), (II) (B), (III) (A), (IV) (C)

(C) (1) (A), (II) (B), (III) (C), (IV) (D)

(D) (1) (C), (II) (A), (III) (B), (IV) (D)

ANSWER: (A)

Q33. On 11th February 2020, World Health Organisation made an official announcement of the name, ‘Covid-19 Virus’ for the new coronavirus that has led to the recent pandemic. This was for communicating to the public and is not intended as replacement for the official name. Which of the following is the correct official name:

(A) Human coronavirus 229 E (HCoV-229E)

(B) Middle East respiratory syndrome coronavirus (MERS-CoV)

(C) Severe acute respiratory syndrome Corona Virus 2 (SARS-CoV-2)

(D) Human coronavirus OC43 (HCoV-OC43)

ANSWER: (C)

Q34. With reference to the latest notification in March 2021 on Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) scheme, consider the following statements:

(1) OCI can purchase agricultural land

(2) OCI can pursue the profession of doctor, advocates, architects and Chartered Accountants.

(3) OCI needs special permit to visit any area in India notified as protected, restricted or prohibited by the Central Govt. or competent authority.

(4) OCI can undertake any ‘research’, undertake any ‘missionary’ or ‘journalistic’ activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) (1) and (2) Only

(B) (2) Only

(C) (2) and (3) Only

(D) (4) Only

ANSWER: (C)

Q35. With regards to Information Technology (Guidelines for Intermediaries and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021, consider the following statements:

(1) The guidelines are for Over the Top (OTT) platforms only

(2) It has the Code of Ethics and Procedure and Safeguards for the intermediaries (as defined in the guidelines)

(3) The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, Govt. of India shall formulate an oversight mechanism.

(4) The rules require intermediaries to set up a grievance redressal mechanism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A) (1) and (2) only

(B) (2) only

(C) (2), (3) and (4) only

(D) (4) only

ANSWER: (C)

Q36. Consider the statement:

“India wants Chabahar port to be included in the 13-nations International North South Transport Corridor (INSTC) that extends from India to Russia”.

Which of the following country/countries is/are member of INSTC

(1) Iran

(2) Iraq

(3) China

(4) Mongolia

Select the correct statement using the code given above:

(A) (1) only

(B) (2) and (3) only

(C) (3) and (4) only

(D) (1), (3) and (4)

ANSWER: (A)

Q37. Which country has, “The News Media and Digital Platforms Mandatory Bargaining Code”?

(A) United Kingdom

(B) Australia

(C) Canada

(D) South Africa

ANSWER: (B)

Q38. Atal Tunnel, named after the former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee, between Manali and Leh, is built on which range of the Himalayas:

(A) Northern Pir Panjal range

(B) Eastern Pir Panjal range

(C) Western Pir Panjal range

(D) Southern Pir Panjal range

ANSWER: (B)

Q39. 1.9 km long Maitri Setu connecting Tripura and Bangladesh, over river Feni, has been built.

Choose the correct statement.

(A) The bridge is between Sabroom in Tripura and Ramgarh in Bangladesh.

(B) The bridge is between Ramgarh in Tripura and Sabroom in Bangladesh

(C) The bridge is between Kailashahr in Tripura and Chittogram in Bangladesh

(D) The bridge is between Chittogram in Tripura and Kailashahr in Bangladesh

ANSWER: (A)

Q40. Bajrang Punia has regained the ‘World Number 1’ ranking in the 65 kg category in March 2021 after winning which of the following?

(A) Asian Wrestling Championship in New Delhi

(B) United World Wrestling Individual World Cup in Belgrade

(C) World Wrestling Championship in Nur-Sultan, Kazakhstan

(D) Matteo Pellicone Ranking Series tournament in Rome.

ANSWER: (D)

Q41.Consider the following pairs:

Which of pairs given above are stated ? correctly AMIN

(A) (1) and (2) only

(B) (1), (2) and (3) only

(C) (1) and (3) only

(D) (3) and (4) only

ANSWER: (C)

Q42. Which of the following test is approved by Indian Council of Medical Research & does require sample from nose or throat ?

(A) Reverse Transcription-Polymerase Chain Reaction Test

(B) Rapid Antibodies Test

(C) Rapid Antigen Test

(D) TruNat Test

ANSWER: (B)

Q43.Match the following and choose the appropriate answer:

(A) (i)-(D); (ii)-(B); (iii)-(C) & (iv) – (A)

(B) (i)-(D); (ii)-(A); (iii)-(B) & (iv) – (C)

(C) (i)-(C); (ii)-(D); (iii)-(A) & (iv) – (B)

(D) (i)-(A); (ii)-(B); (iii)-(D) & (iv) – (C)

ANSWER: (A)

Q44. Consider the following statements about Gabor Szego prize:

(1) The Society of Industrial and Applied Mathematics, USA, awards this prize.

(2) This prize is awarded every year.

(3) This is awarded to an early Career researcher in the area of orthogonal polynomials and special functions.

(4) In the year 2021, an Indian was awarded this prize.

Which one of the above is/are correct statements ?

(A) (1), (3), (4)

(B) (2), (3), (4)

(C) (1), (2), (3)

(D) (1), (2), (3), (4)

ANSWER: (A)

Q45. Justice Madan B Lokur committee was set up to take steps to

(A) Look into violation of environment rules.

(B) Prevent stubble burning

(C) Draft new water policy

(D) Regulate digital lending

ANSWER: (B)

Q46. Goods and Services Tax (GST) was introduced as a part of indirect tax reforms in India. Which of the following are the salient features of the GST ?

(1) GST is applicable on the manufacture of goods or on sale of goods or on provision of services

(2) GST is applicable on supply of goods or services

(3) GST is based on the principle of destination-based consumption taxation

(4) GST is levied at rates decided by GST Council.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) (1) and (4) Only

(B) (2) and (3) Only

(C) (2), (3) and (4) Only

(D) (1), (3) and (4) Only

ANSWER: (C)

Q47. The Govt. of India in its budget, had announced the PM-KUSUM scheme. Which of the following is being taken care of by the PM-KUSUM Scheme?

(A) Removal of farmers’ dependence on diesel and kerosene and linking pump sets to solar energy

(B) Encourage balanced use of all kinds of fertilizers including the traditional organic and other innovative fertilizers

(C) Build a seamless national cold supply chain for perishables, inclusive of milk, meat and fish

(D) Development, management and conservation of marine fishery resources

ANSWER: (A)

Q48. A proportion of the total deposits and reserves of the commercial banks is to be kept with the central bank (RBI). Which one of the following represents this proportion?

(A) Statutory Liquidity Ratio

(B) Cash Reserve Ratio

(C) Minimum Reserve System

(D) Reverse Repo Rate

ANSWER: (B)

Q49. A country is said to be in debt trap if?

(A) It has to abide by the conditionality imposed by the International Monetory Fund.

(B) It is required to borrow money to make interest payments on outstanding loans.

(C) It has been refused loans or aid by creditors.

(D) The World Bank charges a very high rate of interest on outstanding as well as new loans.

ANSWER: (B)

Q50. In the ryotwari system of land administration

(A) Zamindars took responsibility of collecting taxes

(B) Land owners took the responsibility to pay taxes

(C) Farmers directly paid land taxes to British colonial government

(D) No taxes were levied on lands owned by farmers

ANSWER: (C)

Q51. Which of the following commissions was not constituted to look into the centre-states relation in India ?

(A) Sarkaria commission

(B) Rajamannar committee

(C) Soli Sorabjee commission

(D) MM Punchhi commission

ANSWER: (C)

Q52.Which of the following article of fundamental rights is available only to citizens of India?

(A) Right to equality (Article 14)

(B) Right to life and personal liberty (Article 21)

(C) Right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion (Article 25)

(D) Protection of cultural and educational rights of minorities (Article 29)

ANSWER: (D)

Q53. Consider the following statements about Public Accounts Committee in India:

(1) Public Accounts Committee was founded in 1921.

(2) The chairman of the Public Accounts Committee by convention belongs to the main opposition party.

(3) The tenure of its chairman and members is two years.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

(A) (1) and (3) Only

(B) (1), (2), (3) Only

(C) (1) and (2) Only

(D) (2) Only

ANSWER: (C)

Q54. Consider the following statements regarding anti-defection law :

(1) The anti-defection law was enacted during Indira Gandhi government in 1984.

(2) It is placed under the 10th schedule of the constitution.

(3) The anti-defection law was further strengthened by the 93rd amendment in 2003.

(4) The law mandates the chairman or the speaker of the respective legislative house to decide on disqualification arising out of defection.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) (1), (2) and (4) only

(B) (2) and (3) only

(C) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)

(D) (2) and (4) only

ANSWER: (D)

Q55. Which one of the following committees on Panchayati Raj suggested constitutional amendmentto ensure Panchayati Raj institutions? 

(A) Hanumantha Rao committee (1983)

(B) L. M. Singhvi committee (1986)

(C) G.V.K. Rao committee (1985)

(D) P. K. Thungan committee (1989)

ANSWER: (B)

Q56. Consider the following statements regarding Election Commission of India.

(1) The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.

(2) The Election Commission decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.

(3) The Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

(4) The Election Commission of India provides election symbols for newly registered parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(A) (1) and (3) only

(B) (2) and (4) only

(C) (1) only

(D) (1), (2) and (3) only

ANSWER: (C)

Q57. Which of the following is correct regarding the Lok Sabha speaker?

(A) He/she hold the office during the pleasure of the President.

(B) He/she declares any financial bill as money bill and his/her declaration is final.

(C) If he/she intends to resign, the letter of resignation has to be addressed to the President.

(D) He/she must be the most senior member of the Lok Sabha.

ANSWER: (B)

Q58. Which of the following groups of organic compounds are least likely to be used in making of perfumes?

(A) Alcohols

(B) Carboxylic Acids

(C) Esters

(D) Aldehydes

ANSWER: (B)

Q59. Which acid is used for cleaning gold ornaments?

(A) Nitric Acid

(B) Boric Acid

(C) Sulphuric Acid

(D) Oxalic Acid

ANSWER: (A)

Q60. Which of the following does not involve involve Total Internal Reflection?

(A) Mirages in Deserts

(B) Kaleidoscope

(C) Diamond Sparkle

(D) Transmission of light rays in Optical Fibres

ANSWER: (B)

Q61. Which of the following is true in reference to the Blockchain Technology?

(1) It is a cryptographically secure database or distributed ledger shared across a number of participants

(2) It’s a digital ledger of transactions

(3) Blockchain is a Cryptocurrency.

(A) 1 & 3 only

(B) 1 & 2 only

(C) 2 & 3 only

(D) 1, 2 & 3 only

ANSWER: (B)

Q62. In March 2021, Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala became the Director General of

(A) World Health Organization

(B) World Bank

(C) World Tourism Organization

(D) World Trade Organization

ANSWER: (D)

Q63. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?

(A) Tesla: Electric Car

(B) Bitcoin Crypto-currency

(C) Pokemon Go: Augmented Reality mobile Game

(D) Zoom: OTT Streaming Platform

ANSWER: (D)

Q64. Largest freshwater lake in the North East of India is located in which state?

(A) Manipur

(B) Mizoram

(C) Meghalaya

(D) Tripura

ANSWER: (A)

Q65. In February 2021, which NASA rover landed on Mars?

(A) Perseverance

(B) Curiosity

(C) Hope

(D) Viking

ANSWER: (A)

Q66. Mahatma Gandhi was elected as the President of the Indian National Congress only once. In which of the following sessions did it happen?

(A) Amritsar Session 1919

(B) Belgaum Session 1924

(C) Lahore Session 1929

(D) Lucknow Session 1936

ANSWER: (B)

Q67. Match list I with list II

(1)(2)(3)(4)

(A)(i)(ii)(iii)(iv)

(B)(iv)(ii)(iii)(i)

(C)(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)

(D)(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)

ANSWER: (D)

Q68. Who among the following revolutionaries were hanged in the famous Kakori Conspiracy case?

(i) Ramprasad Bismil

(ii) Rajendra Lahiri

(iii) Asfaqullah Khan

(iv) Bhagat Singh

(v) Thakur Roshan Singh

(vi) Chandrasekhar Azad

(A) All the above

(B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) only

(C) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi) only

(D) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) only

ANSWER: (B)

Q69. Which social reform organization was founded in Bombay by Dadoba and Atmaram Pandurang? It became popular after MG Ranade joined the organization.

(A) Dev Samaj

(B) Brahmo Samaj

(C) Prarthana Samaj

(D) Servants of India Society

ANSWER: (C)

Q70. Which of the following pair of writers and books in ancient India is wrongly matched?

(A) Mricchakatikam: Shudraka

(B) Raghuvansham: Kalidasa

(C) Buddha Charita: Asvaghosa

(D) Kadambari: Harshavardhan

ANSWER: (D)

Q71. Which were the three main traditional styles of temple architecture in India?

(A) Nagara, Kalasha and Mandapa

(B) Vesara, Dravida and Ratha

(C) Nagara, Vesara and Dravida

(D) Nagara, Vimana and Shikara

ANSWER: (C)

Q72. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer

(1)(2)(3)(4)

(A)(i)(ii)(iii)(iv)

(B)(iv)(ii)(iii)(i)

(C)(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)

(D)(i)(iv)(ii)(iii)

ANSWER: (C)

Q73. Match List 1 with List II and select the correct answer

(1)(2)(3)(4)

(A)(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)

(B)(i)(ii)(iii)(iv)

(C)(iv)(iii)(ii)(i)

(D)(iii)(iv)(ii)(i)

ANSWER: (C)

Q74. Sriharikota, where Satish Dhawan Space Centre is located, is situated next to which lake?

(A) Chilika

(B) Pulicat

(C) Vembanad

(D) Kolar

ANSWER: (B)

Q75. Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande was a renowned figure in which art form?

(A) Hindustani Classical Music

(B) Marathi Theatre

(C) Early Indian Cinema

(D) Carnatic Music

ANSWER: (A)

Q76. Recently launched Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership, RCEP is the largest regional trading block at present. Which of the following countries is NOT a member of this free trade agreement?

(A) Australia

(B) New Zealand

(C) Brunei

(D) Bangladesh

ANSWER: (D)

Q77. Which of the following pairs are matched correctly?

(i) Bitcoin: National Stock Exchange

(ii) FRBM Act: Fiscal Deficit

(iii) SEBI: Insurance Regulation

(iv) Special Drawing Rights: International Monetary Fund

(v) Moody’s: Credit Rating

(A) (ii), (iv) and (v) only

(B) (iii), (iv) and (v) only

(C) (i), (iv) and (v) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) only

ANSWER: (A)

Q78. During the earlier/ancient period the Haryana region was known as

(i) Brahmavarta

(ii) Aryavarta

(iii) Brahomoupdesa

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(C) (i) and (iii) only

(D) All of the above

ANSWER: (D)

Q79. Who gave the title of Naib Bakshi and Rao www.H to Balram Jat popularly known as Balu?

(A) Akbar

(B) Jahangir

(C) Muhammad Shah

(D) Aurangzeb

ANSWER: (C)

Q80. Consider the following statements

(i) Haryana State was formed on the recommendations of Sardar Hukum Singh Parliamentary Committee

(ii) Shah commission was set up under the Chairmanship of Justice J C Shah to divide and set up the boundaries of Punjab and Haryana State

(iii) On 1st Nov 1966, Haryana as the seventeenth State of India came into existence Which of the above statements is / are correct?

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(C) (i) and (iii) only

(D) All of the above

ANSWER: (D)

Q81. Read the following two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the appropriate option.

(A) No Five Year Plan was made by the Government of India during the late 1960s

(R) Indo-Pakistan conflict, drought and inflation erased the financial resources required for planning.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)

(B) Only (A) is true and (R) is false and (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)

(C) Only (R) is true and (A) is false

(D) Both (A) and (R) are false

ANSWER: (A)

Q82. The Kharif crops in India are:

(i) Wheat,

(ii) Paddy

(iii) Mustard

(iv) Gram

(v) Groundnut

(vi) Maize

The correct answer is:

(A) (i), (ii) and (vi) only

(B) (ii), (v) and (vi) only

(C) (ii), (iii) and (vi) only

(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

ANSWER: (B)

Q83. This compound is conventionally used for white washing of buildings. Which of the following statements is / are true about it.

(1) It is obtained by treating quick lime with water.

(2) It is produced when calcium carbide reacts with water.

(3) It is one of the raw materials used for the manufacture of Portland cement.

(4) It is called slaked lime and its chemical formula is Ca(OH)2

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) (1) and (4) only

(B) (2), (3) and (4) only

(C) (1), (2) and (4) only

(D) (1), (2) and (3) only

ANSWER: (C)

Q84. Which of the following statements are true about washing soda?

(1) Its chemical name is sodium hydrogencarbonate and its aqueous solution is basic in nature.

(2) Its chemical name is sodium carbonate and the pH of its aqueous solution is more than 7.

(3) It is used for raising of cakes while baking.

(4) It is used for the removal of permanent hardness of water.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) (2) and (3) only

(B) (2) and (4) only

(C) (1) and (3) only

(D) (2), (3) and (4) only

ANSWER: (B)

Q85. The substances with pH less than 7 are

(1) Gastric juices

(2) Coffee

(3) Apple juice

(4) Liquid in the car battery

(A) (1) and (2) only

(B) (1), (3) and (4) only

(C) (1), (2) and (3) only

(D) All of these

ANSWER: (D)

Q86. The best electrical conductor among the following is

(A) gold

(B) copper

(C) aluminium

(D) silver

ANSWER: (D)

Q87. The depth of a sea can be determined by using SONAR, Consider the following statements about it:

(1) It uses ultrasonic waves for measurement of depth of a sea.

(2) The speed of ultrasonic waves in sea water is the seas that of sound in air.

(3) Time taken by the ultrasonic waves reflected from the bottom of the sea to reach the detector is used to measure the depth

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) (3) Only

(B) (1) and (3) Only

(C) (2) and (3) Only

(D) (1), (2) and (3) Only

ANSWER: (B)

Q88. Match the diseases listed in Column ‘A’ with their toms in Column ‘B’ and select the symptoms correct option.

Code:

(A) (i)-(A), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(D)

(B) (i)-(B), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(A) (iv)-(C)

(C) (i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B),) (iv)-(D)

(D) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(B)

ANSWER: (B)

Q89. Plastic Bags are a potential hazard to the environment. Which of the following options correctly describe this?

(A) They are light in weight and hence cause nuisance by flying

(B) Toxic chemicals are used in their production

(C) They are non-resistant to heat

(D) They are non-biodegradable

ANSWER: (D)

Q90. A patient suffering from stomach pain and indigestion was advised by the doctor to take probiotics. The probiotics help to

(A) increase the effects of medication.

(B) kill harmful bacteria in the stomach.

(C) provide the beneficial bacteria for healthy digestion.

(D) decrease the acid secretion and increase the enzymatic activity.

ANSWER: (C)

Q91. Doctors recommended Real Time PCR test for COVID 19 patients. This diagnostic test detects

(A) complete covid virus

(B) protein of virus

(C) RNA of virus

(D) specific antigen of virus

ANSWER: (C)

Q92. The famous Nubra valley known for its orchards vistas, Bactrian camels and monasteries lies between the two mountains ranges of:

(A) Karakoram and Zanskar

(B) Zanskar and Ladakh

(C) Ladakh and Pir Panjal

(D) Karakoram and Ladakh

ANSWER: (D)

Q93. Consider the following statements regarding Depsang Plains.

(1) It is formed by fertile alluvium soils.

(2) The plain is found at the higher altitudes.

(3) It is covered with dense coniferous forests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A) (1) only

(B) (2) only

(C) (1) and (3) only

(D) (2) and (3) only

ANSWER: (B)

Q94. Match the name of Slash and Burn agriculture give II. in column I with the state / region in Column II

(A) (1)-(a), (2)-(b), (3)-(c), (4)-(d)

(B) (1)-(c), (2)-(d), (3)-(d), (4)-(b)

(C) (1)-(b), (2)-(d), (3)-(a), (4)-(c)

(D) (1)-(d), (2)-(c), (3)-(b), (4)-(a)

ANSWER: (B)

Q95. Which are the northernmost, southernmost, easternmost and westernmost landlocked states in India in this order with no international borders?

(A) Himachal Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Assam, Gujarat

(B) Haryana, Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Madhya Pradesh

(C) Himachal Pradesh. Kerala, Mizoram, Gujarat

(D) Haryana, Telangana, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh

ANSWER: (D)

Q96. Which of the following is NOT a major river basin in India?

(A) Pennar

(B) Mahi

(C) Teesta

(D) Sabarmati

ANSWER: (C)

Q97. Which of the following statements about Jhelum river and fluvial landform?

(1) Jhelum flows in the valley of Kashmir in its youth stage.

(2) It forms meanders in the valley of Kashmir.

(3) Meander is a typical feature associated with the youth stage in the evolution of fluvial landform.

(4) Meander is a typical feature associated with the mature stage in the evolution of fluvial landform.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

(A) (1) and (2) only

(B) (2) and (4) only

(C) (1), (2) and (3) only

(D) (1), (2) and (4) only

ANSWER: (D)

Q98. Which of the following represents Gandhara School of art?

(A) Bamiyan Buddha

(B) Bodhisattva Shakyamuni

(C) Sleeping Buddha

(D) Bhumisparsha Buddha

ANSWER: (A)

Q99. Match the following:

(A) (a)-(2), (b)-(3), (c)-(1), (d)-(4)

(B) (a)-(2), (b)-(4), (c)-(1), (d)-(3)

(C) (a)-(2), (b)-(1), (c)-(3), (d)-(4)

(D) (a)-(4), (b)-(2), (c)-(1), (d)-(3)

ANSWER: (B)

Q100. Match the following:

(A) (a)-(1), (b)-(3), (c)-(2), (d)-(4)

(B) (a)-(2), (b)-(4), (c)-(1), (d)-(3)

(C) (a)-(2), (b)-(1), (c)-(4), (d)-(3)

(D) (a)-(4), (b)-(2), (c)-(1), (d)-(3)

ANSWER: (C)

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