Haryana HCS 2024 Previous Year Paper

HCS [HARYANA CIVIL SERVICES]

PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 2024

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) Report:

Statement-I: Current Weekly Status (CWS) in urban areas is measured at the interval of three months.

Statement-II: Present Labour Force participation rate (LFPR) and Unemployment rate is in declining trend when compared with its base year 2017-18.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) Statement I is correct only

(B) Statement II is correct only

(C) Both Statement I and II are correct

(D) Neither Statement I nor II is correct

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding recently released Reserve Bank of India regarding Treatment of Wilful Defaulters and Large Defaulters Directions, 2023:

1. The directions are applicable to all regulated entities including NABARD, SIDBI and EXIM Bank.
2. A wilful default borrower needs to be reviewed and finalised within six months of an account being classified as a non-performing asset (NPA).
3. Lender cannot proceed against guarantor without exhausting the remedies against principal debtor.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) All 1, 2 and 3

(D) 2 and 3 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the Scheme for Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RODTEP):

1. It provides a mechanism for exemption of taxes, duties, and levies on exported goods.
2. The scheme is WTO-compatible and is being implemented in an end-to-end IT environment.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) None

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (X)

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) Framework:

1. Currently PCA supervisory norms are applicable to both Government and non-Government NBFC’s.
2. Discretionary actions under PCA include Restriction on Branch Expansion

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) None

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act:

1. A Fugitive Economic Offender (FEO) is a person who has fled the country and against whom an arrest warrant has been issued for involvement in economic offenses involving at least Rs. 100 crores.
2. Under the Act, authorities are empowered to confiscate assets even when no conviction has been obtained.
3. Financial Intelligence Unit is the nodal agency to implement the Act.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) All 1, 2 and 3

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Global Survey on Digital and Sustainable Trade Facilitation:

1. It was released by the World Trade Organisation.
2. The overall score of India has been greater than many developed countries.
3. It is a bi-annual survey that deals with trade facilitation measures taken collectively by the WTO member countries.

How many of the statement given above are correct:

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) All 1, 2 and 3

(D) None

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding the Corporate Debt Market Development Fund (CDMDF):

1. It will be established as an Alternative Investment Fund.
2. Contribution to the fund shall be mandatory for specified debt-oriented Mutual Fund Schemes and Asset Management Companies.
3. Initially, it will be established for 5 years and can be extended as per SEBI’s mandate.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) All 1, 2 and 3

(D) None

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) in India:

1. It has fluctuated drastically in the past decade.
2. In 2022-23, the net FPI in India was less than 1% of the GDP.
3. Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 is the primary legislation governing FPI in India. How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) All Three

(D) None

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q9. Consider the following statements in reference to the fertilizers sector in India:

1. Sulphur-coated Urea, also commonly called Neam-coated Urea will help in addressing the sulphur deficiency of the soil.
2. Fertilizer Flying Squads (FFS) was constituted to provide crop-wise recommendations of fertilizers for individual farms.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2 only

(D) None

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q10. Consider the following statements:

1. International Financial Corporation is an organ of World Bank to finance private sector in developing countries.
2. ICIMOD – International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development is an inter-government knowledge and learning centre situated in Switzerland.
3. All India Rural Financial Inclusion Survey is conducted by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) every five years. Inclusion

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 only

(D) All of the above

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q11. Match the following List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct option:

(A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

(B) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c

(C) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d

(D) 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q12. Consider the following statements:

1. Gini Index is a graphical representation of the distribution of income or of wealth.
2. Higher the Gini Index, the greater the degree of income equality.
3. The value of Gini Index has increased amongst regular workers while it decreased among casual workers in India as per India Wage Report.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 3 only

(D) All 1, 2 and 3

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (X)

Q13. Which of the following features are associated with Regur Soils in India?

1. It develops on crystalline igneous rocks as a result of intense leaching.
2. It is rich in Iron, Potash and Phosphoric contents.
3. It is typically found in north-west region of Deccan plateau and made up of lava flows.
4. It is rich in calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and lime.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2 and 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q14. Which of the following characteristics is associated with red and yellow soils in India?

1. It develops on crystalline igneous rocks in area of heavy rainfall.
2. It develops a reddish colour due to diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks.
3. It develops yellow colour in hydrated forms.
4. It develops red and yellow colour due to iron and Sulphur in dry conditions.

How many of the statements given above are correct:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2 and 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q15. Consider the following statement: There is renewed thrust on production of Millet Crops. Which of the following statement(s) is/are attributable to Ragi Crop?

1. Ragi is rain-fed crop and mostly grows well in black soil.
2. Ragi grows well on red, black, sandy, loamy and shallow black soil.
3. It is crop of dry regions and rich in iron, calcium and roughage.
4. Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Jharkhand, Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh are major ragi producing states.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 2, 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 3 and 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q16. Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

(B) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

(C) a-ii, b-1, c-iv, d-iii

(D) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q17. Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

(B) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

(C) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

(D) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q18. Consider the following statements:

1. Copper, Lead, Tin and Bauxite are non-ferrous minerals.
2. Manganese, Iron, Cobalt and Mica are ferrous minerals.
3. Potash, Marble and Granite are non-metallic minerals.
4. Nickel, Cobalt and Platinum are precious metals.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 1 and 4 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 2, 3 and 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q19. Consider the following statements:

1. Kandla port also known as Sardar Patel Port is a tidal port.
2. Marmagao port is for the premier Iron ore export.
3. Chennai is one of the oldest artificial ports of the country.
4. Paradwip port specializes in the export of Mica in the country.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 3 and 4 only

(D) 2, 3 and 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q20. Consider the following statements relating to our Solar System:

1. Saptarishi forms part of constellation Big Bear.
2. Saptarishi forms part of the constellation Ursa Major.
3. Asteroids Belt lies between orbits of Mars and Earth.
4. The largest asteroid is Ceres.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2 and 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q21. Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

(B) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

(C) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

(D) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (X)

Q22. Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

(B) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

(C) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

(D) a-iii,b-i,c-ii,d-iv

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q23. Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

(B) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

(C) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

(D) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q24. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Jet Streams are the the strong strong cores of upper-level westerly winds which follow a meandering path.

Statement-II: The term ‘jet stream’ ‘ was first applied to high velocity upper-level winds during World War-II.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct.

(B) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(C) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

(D) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q25. Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) a-iii,b-ii,c-iv, d-i

(B) a-ii,b-iii,c-iv,d-i

(C) a-iii,b-i,c-ii, d-iv

(D) a-iv,b-i,c-iii, d-ii

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q26. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

(B) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

(C) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

(D) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q27. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

(B) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

(C) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

(D) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q28.Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The ancient Buddha (Bauddh) Stupa is situated on the west side of Brahmasarovar.

Statement II: The mound is spread over an area of approx. three acres. The height of the mound is about 4 m from the surrounding ground level.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

(B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

(C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q29. Consider the following pairs:

1. Aram-i-Kausar: Narnaul
2. Tomb of Sheikh Tayyab: Kaithal
3. Bhai ki Baoli: Meham(Rohtak)

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q30. Consider the following statements about Bhumia or Khera:

1. It is the god of the homestead or the village.
2. Bhumia is worshipped at the time of marriage.

III. First milk of cow or buffalo is always offered to Bhumia.

How many of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(A) Only one statement is correct.

(B) Only two statements are correct.

(C) All three statements are correct.

(D) None of the statements is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q31. Match List I and List II:

Select the correct option from the following given options:

(A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

(B) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

(C) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii

(D) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q32. Consider the following statements:

1. The finest and the best preserved Baoli in Haryana is in Meham.
2. The coin moulds of the later Youdheyas of the third-fourth centuries have been found in large numbers from Rohtak.
3. An image of Kartikeya sitting in lalitasana on a peacock has been discovered from Khokrakot.

How many of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(A) Only one statement is correct.

(B) Only two statements are correct.

(C) All three satatements are correct.

(D) None of the statements is correct

(E) Question not attempted.

ANSWER: (C)

Q33. Consider the following Statements:

Arrange the following intangible cultural heritages in in order of their year of induction into the UNESCO heritage list (Oldest to Newest):

1. Kalbelia
2. Budhist Chanting
3. Ramlila
4. Kumbh Mela
5. Nowrouz

Choose the correct option from the following:

(A) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4

(B) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4

(C) 3, 4, 5, 2, 1

(D) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q34.Consider the following statements:

Statement I: A raga is associated with a specific mood, time of the day and season. For every raga there are six female consorts called raginis.

Statement II: Ragamala paintings are pictorial interpretations of ragas and raginis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q35.Consider the following statements:

1. Aditya-L1, a space observatory with 9 payloads designed to study the Sun.
2. The VELC will take image the Sun’s atmosphere, the Corona at high resolution and time cadence.
3. Aditya -L1 carries an ultraviolet imager, 3 X-ray spectrometer and four in -situ instruments to measure plasma parameters.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement is correct.

(B) Only two statements are correct.

(C) All three statements are correct.

(D) None of the statements is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q36.Consider the following pairs:

1. CREST: Hosakote
2. Solar Observatory: Kodaikanal
3. Radio Observatory: Gauribidanur

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q37.Consider the following pairs:

1. Intelligent Waterbody Management Project: Tamara
2. AMRUT 2.0: Preserving surface and ground water bodies
3. PLASHBOT: Diffuser Aerators for bottom of water bodies

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q38.Consider the following pairs:

1. Advika: Chickpea
2. Panchamrit India’s Climate Action Plan
3. Mission Life: Life Style in harmony with ecological well-being

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q39.Consider the following pairs:

1. BHARAT: Agri Infra Fund
2. Longpi pottery: Chhattisgarh
3. Sulur Bamboo Wind Flute: Manipur

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: ()

Q40.Consider the following statements relating to free coaching scheme under the umbrella scheme ‘SHREYAS’:

1. It provides coaching of good quality for economically disadvantaged SCs, OBCs and Minorities.
2. The ceiling of total family income under the scheme is Rs 8 Lakhs per annum.
3. The ratio of SC and OBC students is 70: 30 and 30 percent seats are reserved for females in each category.
4. The ratio of SCs, OBCs and minority students have been fixed at 50: 30: 20.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only

(B) 1,2 and 4 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 2 and 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q41.Consider the following Statements relating to Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojna (PMJDY). It is intended to

1. Provide access to financial and social services at an affordable cost.
2. Use of technology to lower cost and wider reach.
3. Opening of basic saving bank deposit account in camp mode with minimum balance of Rs. 500 and zero charges.
4. Issuance of Indigenous Debit Card.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 1 and 4 only

(C) 2 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q42.Considered the following statements:

1. Samudra Gupta’s ‘Vyagrashaili’ postures reveal his conquest of the West.
2. The coins of the Ashoka era give us information about his ‘governance system’.
3. On one of the seals of Satavahana King Shatakarni, a picture of a ‘ship’ is engraved, which is a symbol of his victory over the sea.
4. Information about Ashvamedha Yagya is found in the coins of Kumargupta’s ‘Ashvamedha style’.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2 and 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q43.Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

(B) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii

(C) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

(D) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q44.Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

(B) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii

(C) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

(D) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q45.Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

(B) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii

(C) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

(D) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q46.Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

(B) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii

(C) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

(D) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q47.Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Virupaksha temple was built in the sixteenth century.

Statement II: The pavilion in front of the Virupaksha temple was built during the time of Krishnadev Rai.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.

(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q48.Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Bhakti saint Shankardev addressed ‘Vaishnav Dharma’ as ‘Bhagwati Dharma’.

Statement II: Shankardev’s main composition is Kirtanaghosh.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.

(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q49.Consider the following statements:

1. The Puranas call the Satvahanas ‘Andhrabhritya’ and ‘Andhrajatya’.
2. The history of Satvahanas is especially found in Vishnu and Bhagwat Purana.
3. Names of more than a hundred kings of Satvahanas are found in the Puranas.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement is correct.

(B) Only two statements are correct.

(C) All three statements are correct.

(D) None of the statements is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q50. Consider the following statements:

1. Kabir Granthawali is related to Dadupanthies of Rajasthan.
2. Meera’s teacher Raidas was a weaver.
3. Malik Mohammad Jayasi promoted the establishment of prayer halls like Namghar.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement is correct.

(B) Only two statements are correct.

(C) All three statements are correct.

(D) None of the statements is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q51.Consider the following statements:

1. The selection of the Vijayanagara site was inspired by the existence of the Virupaksha temple.
2. Vijayanagara was established near the Pampadevi temple.
3. ‘Shri Pampay Namah’ inscription has been found on the Vijaynagara coins.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement is correct.

(B) Only two statements are correct.

(C) All three statements are correct.

(D) None of the statements is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q52.Consider the following pairs:

1. Pratihar King Bhoj : Gwalior Inscription
2. Satavahana King Pulumavi : Nasik Inscription
3. Hun King Toraman : Eran Varaha Inscription

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q53.Consider the following pairs:

1. Mulfuzat : Conversations of Sufi Saints
2. Maktubat: Recollection of biographies of Sufi saints
3. Tazkiras : Compilation of written letters

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q54.Consider the following pairs:

1. Dar-ul-Adal Place of Justice
2. Balahar Low class agricultural labourer
3. Malikut-Tujjar Chief of traders

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q55.Consider the following pairs:

1. Leader of the revolution in 1857 in Ahirwal (Haryana) : Rao Tularam
2. Leader of the revolution in 1857 in Faridabad (Haryana) : Dhanu Singh
3. Leader of the revolution in Hansi (Haryana) in 1857 : Imam Ali Qalandar

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q56.Consider the following statements:

1. In 1676, Shivaji crowned himself formally at Rajgarh.
2. The Karnataka expedition was the last major expedition of Shivaji.
3. In 1678, Shivaji campaigned against Karnakata and forced Qutb Shah to pay a subsidy of one lakh huns.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement is correct.

(B) Only two statements are correct.

(D) None of the statements is correct.

(C) All three statements are correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q57.Consider the following pairs:

1. Nuh Sipihr Amir Khusrau
2. Riyazul Insha Mahmud Gawan
3. Burhan-i-Ma’asir Rafiuddin Shirazi

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q58.Consider the following pairs:

1. Basawan : Akbar
2. Mir Saiyid Ali : Humayun
3. Daswant : Jahangir

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q59.Consider the following pairs:

1. Rani Durgawati : Gondwana
2. Chand Bibi : Ahmadnagar
3. Zuhra : Muhammad Shah

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q60.Consider the following pairs:

1. Amir-i-Dad : Law officer who carried out the decisions of the judges
2. Turkan-i-Chahalgani : A group of forty
3. Barid-i-mamalik : Head of the information and intelligence department

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q61.Consider the following pairs

1. Sur Das : Sur Sagar
2. Shankardeva : Kirtan Ghosh
3. Sant Tukaram : Abhangas

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q62.Consider the following statements:

1. Guru Gobind Singh, the 10th guru of the Sikhs composed his verses mainly in Hindi (Braj Bhasha).
2. The play Niladarpan was written by Dinabandhu Mitra.
3. Anand Math contained the famous nationalist song ‘Vande Mataram.’

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement is correct.

(B) Only two statements are correct.

(C) All three statements are correct.

(D) None of the statements is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q63.Consider the following statements:

1. Indian James Mill was highly critical of Indian religion and culture.
2. William Bentinck announced in 1835, that Persian was abolished as the court language and was substituted by English.
3. Wood’s Despatch led to the establishment of university at Calcutta, Bombay and Delhi.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement is correct.

(B) Only two statements are correct.

(C) All three statements are correct.

(D) None of the statements is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q64.Consider the following statements:

1. The Indian National Army had fighting brigades in the name of Gandhi, Azad, and Subhash.
2. The slogans of the Indian National Army were ‘Jai Hind’ and ‘Delhi Chalo.’
3. Rash Behari Bose was not associated with the Indian National Army.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement is correct.

(B) Only two statements are correct.

(C) All three statements are correct.

(D) None of the statements is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q65.Consider the following statements.

1. The election to the office of the President of India is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single non-transferable vote.
2. The value of the vote of each Member of Parliament from Uttar Pradesh is greater than the value of the vote of the MP from Goa.
3. Electors cannot use the provision of NOTA in the election of President.
4. The provisions of Anti-defection law are not applicable in Presidential election.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2 and 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q66.Consider the following statements:

1. The writ, Mandamus can be issued against both Public Authorities and Private Individuals.
2. Mandamus can be issued to enforce a contractual obligation.
3. Mandamus cannot be issued against the Governor of a State.
4. Mandamus can be issued against a state to refund the tax collected unlawfully.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement

(B) Two statements

(C) Three statements

(D) All four statements

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q67.Consider the following statements:

1. In order to form a new state in the Indian Union, the Parliament can amend the provisions of the Constitution with a Simple Majority.
2. To amend the provisions of Directive Principles of State Policy, the Parliament requires a Special Majority.
3. To amend Article 368 of the Constitution, the Parliament requires Special Majority along with the consent of half of the state legislatures.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement is correct.

(B) Only two statements are correct.

(C) All three statements are correct.

(D) None of the statements is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q68.Consider the following pairs:

1. Establishment of standards of weight and measures: Union List
2. Adoption and succession: State List
3. Betting and gambling: Concurrent List

How many of the following pairs are correct?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q69.Consider the following statements:

1. That Residuary subjects are the subjects that are not included in the three lists of the 7th schedule of the Constitution.
2. According to Article 248, both the union Parliament and state legislatures can make laws on these subjects.
3. Space technology is an example of a residuary subject.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement is correct.

(B) Only two statements are correct.

(C) All three statements are correct.

(D) None of the statements is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q70.Match List I with List II in reference to Constitution of India:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(A) a: iii, b: ii, c: iv, d: i

(B) a: i, b: ii, c: iii, d: iv

(C) a: ii, b: i, c: iii, d: iv

(D) a: iv, b: ii, c: iii, d: i.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q71.Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) a: iii, b: i, c: iv, d: ii

(B) a: i, b: ii, c: iii, d: iv

(C) a: ii, b: i, c: iv, d: iii

(D) a: iv, b: iii, c: ii, d: i

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q72.Match List I with List II:

Choose the Correct Answer from the options given below

(A) a: i, b: ii c: iii, d: iv

(B) a: i, b: iii, c: ii, d: iv

(C) a: ii, b: i, c: iv, d: iii

(D) a: iv, b: iii, c: ii, d: i

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q73.Consider the following statements:

1. Public Interest Litigation is a legal action initiated in a court of law for the enforcement of public interest.
2. PIL has reinforced the principle of locus standi.
3. Both citizens and organizations can file a PIL.
4. Supreme Court under Article 32 and High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution of India can entertain PILs.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 3 and 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q74.Consider the following statements:

1. Privy purse referred to a specific sum of money that was payable annually to rulers of former princely states that signed the Instrument of Accession.
2. The payment of privy purse was a constitutional obligation before 42nd Amendment.
3. The abolition of Privy Purse was justified on the ground that it stood against the principle of egalitarianism enshrined in the Constitution.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement is correct.

(B) Only two statements are correct.

(C) All three statements are correct.

(D) None of the statements is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q75.Consider the following statements:

1. Parliament can legislate on matters enumerated in the State List if two or more state legislatures pass resolutions requesting the Parliament to enact such laws.
2. A law so enacted will be equally applicable to all the states, irrespective of whether they passed such a resolution or not.
3. Such a law can be amended or repealed only by the Parliament.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement is correct.

(B) Only two statements are correct.

(C) All three statements are correct.

(D) None of the statements is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q76.Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) a: iii, b: iv c: ii, d: i

(B) a. i, b: iii, c: ii, d: iv

(C) a: ii, b: i, c: iv, d: iii

(D) a: iv, b: iii, c: ii, d: i.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q77.Consider the following pairs:

1. Payment Consolidated Fund of India: Payment from the fund can be made without Parliamentary appropriation.
2. Contingency Fund of India: Held by Finance Secretary on behalf of the President of India.
3. Public Account of India: Executive requires Parliamentary approval to withdraw money from this account.

How many of the above pairs are correct?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q78.Consider the following pairs:

1. Equal Justice and Free Legal Aid Article 36 of Constitution
2. Promotion of Cooperative Societies: Article 43B of Constitution
3. Participation of Workers in Management of Industries: Article 43A of Constitution

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q79.Consider the following pairs:

1. Right to adequate means of livelihood: Article 39(a) of Constitution
2. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women: Article 39(e) of Constitution
3. Right to work, education and public assistance: Article 41 of Constitution

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q80.Consider the following pairs:

1. Educational and economic interests of weaker sections: Article 45 of Constitution
2. Educational and economic interest of SCs &STS: Article 46 of the Constitution
3. Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry: Article 47 of the Constitution

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q81.Consider the following pairs:

1. The Vice-President of India: Article 62 of Constitution
2. Election of Vice President: Article 65 of Constitution
3. Terms of office of President: Article 59 of Constitution

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q82.Consider the following pairs:

1. Enlargement of Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court Article 138A of Constitution of India.
2. Conferment on the Supreme Court of powers to issue certain writs Article 139A of Constitution of India.
3. Civil and judicial authority to act in aid of the Supreme Court: Article 144A of the Constitution of India.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q83.Consider the following pairs:

1. Dengue: Caused by mosquito and spreads through blood
2. Typhoid: Caused by bacteria and spreads through water
3. Ringworm: Caused by fungus and spreads through worms

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q84.Consider the following statements regarding diabetes:

1. It is caused by the oversecretion of insulin by pancreas.
2. The glucose level increases in the blood.
3. The patient urinates frequently, loses weight and becomes lethargic.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement is correct.

(B) Only two statements are correct.

(C) All three statements are correct.

(D) None of the statements is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q85.Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The blood arteries have thick and rigid walls.

Statement II: Arteries carry oxygen-rich blood from heart to various body organs under high pressure.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

(B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

(C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q86.Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Hydrogen is considered as a clean automobile fuel for future.

Statement II: Hydrogen is the most abundant element in the universe.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

(B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

(C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q87.Consider the following pairs:

1. Ginning: Separation of cotton fibres from seeds
2. Weaving: Making yarn from fibres
3. Polyester: Melts on catching fire and sticks to the body

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q88.Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The effect of ant bite can be neutralised by rubbing calamine solution.

Statement II: Calamine solution contains zinc carbonate which is basic in nature.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

(B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

(C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q89.Consider the following pairs:

1. Plane mirror : Image of the same size as the object
2. Concave mirror : Rear view mirror in a vehicle
3. Convex mirror: Dentist

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q90.Consider the following pairs:

1. Quick lime: Manufacture of Cement
2. Slaked lime: Preparation of Soap
3. Plaster of Paris: Making Toys

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) All three pairs

(D) None of the pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q91.Take few drops of onion juice, dilute vanilla essence and clove oil in three different test tubes and consider the following statements:

1. The characteristic smell of onion vanishes upon addition of NaOH, however it persists with HCl.
2. The characteristic smell of vanilla is lost upon addition of HCl, however it persists with NaOH.
3. The characteristic smell of clove oil is lost upon addition of NaOH in it.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement is correct.

(B) Only two statements are correct.

(C) All three statements are correct.

(D) None of the statements is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q92.Consider the following statements:

1. the range When pH of rain water lies in the range of 6 to 7, it is called acid rain.
2. Tooth enamel starts to corrode when pH of mouth is greater than 7.
3. Under acidic conditions farmers would treat the soil with quick lime.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement

(B) Only two statements

(C) All three statements

(D) None of the statements

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q93.Consider the following statements:

1. Alkali is a base that dissolve in water.
2. Ca(OH)2 is not an example of alkali.
3. Dissolution of a base in water is an exothermic process.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Only one statement is correct.

(B) correct. Only two statements are correct.

(C) All three statements are correct.

(D) None of the statements is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q94.Consider the following pairs:

1. Acid left by bee sting of honey bee: HCl
2. Atmosphere of Venus: H2SO4
3. Antacid: Methanoic Acid

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one pair is correct.

(B) Only two pairs are correct.

(C) All three pairs are correct.

(D) None of the pairs is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q95.Consider the following statements:

Touching a flame is an urgent and dangerous situation and we drag our hands involuntarily. This fast reaction is attributable to which of the following structures of the nervous system?

1. Spinal Cord
2. Motor Neuron
3. Brain
4. Sensory neuron

How many of the statement given above are correct?

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1, 2 and 4 only

(D) 2, 3 and 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q96.Consider the following statements:

Which of the following functions is/are influenced by adrenalin?

1. Increase the heart beat
2. More Oxygen supply to muscles.
3. Increased supply of blood to the digestive system.
4. Breathing rate declines.

How many of the statement given above are correct?

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1, 2 and 3 only

(D) 1 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q97.Consider the following statements:

Anaerobic breakdown of glucose in cells results in formation of which of the following compounds?

1. Ethanol
2. Lactic Acid
3. Carbon dioxide
4. ATP

How many of the statement given above are correct?

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1, 2 and 3 only

(D) 2 and 3 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q98.Consider the following statements: During Urine formation which of the following substances are selectively reabsorbed from the initial filtrate?

1. Glucose
2. Amino Acid
3. Salts
4. Water

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(B) 3 and 4 only

(C) 1, 2 and 3 only

(D) 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q99.Consider the following statements:

Which of the following plant hormones helps in promoting growth in plants?

1. Auxins
2. Gibberellins
3. Cytokinins
4. Abscisic Acid

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(B) 1, 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 2 only

(D) 1 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q100. Consider the following statements:

Statements-1: The length of the small intestine differs in various animals depending on the food they eat.

Statement-2: Herbivores needs a longer small intestine to allow the cellulose to be digested.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(A) Both Statements are correct.

(B) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.

(C) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

(D) Both statements are incorrect.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)